In the context of a broader question, someone asked:
Can the detailed analyses from, say, the Wechsler test, be used to inform decisions significantly better that gut feelings can?
While this question might be closed, I thought a more defined question regarding the correlation between self-rated and objective measures of intelligence would be good to have. I feel as if I've read papers that suggest the correlation is modest (e.g., r = .2 or .3). Presumably, Dunning-Kruger and a bunch of self-serving biases operate. But I could not find any authoritative reference off hand. So my questions:
- What is the correlation between self-rated intelligence and objective measures of intelligence (i.e., full scale IQ scores from well-validated measures)?
- To what extent does the correlation depend on how the self-ratings are obtained?