My understanding is that:
- The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia states that the positive symptoms are a result of excessive neurotransmission of dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway.
- D1-like receptors have an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic neuron, while D2-like receptors have an inhibitory effect.
- The goal of first-generation antipsychotics is to block D2-like receptors so that dopamine cannot bind to them, which prevents the typical postsynaptic response.
Given the above, I would expect that preventing dopamine from binding to D2-like receptors would lead to an increase in the probability that the postsynaptic neuron will fire, which would increase dopamine neurotransmission along the pathway. On the other hand, it would make sense to me if antipsychotics blocked D1-like receptors, since those have an excitatory effect. What am I missing here? Am I oversimplifying the effects of D2-like receptor activation?