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morpheus
  • Member for 11 years
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Phase locking value (PLV) between $x(t)$ and $x(t-T)$
yes when T=0 I am computing PLV between $x(t)$ and $x(t)$ which gives 1 as expected. But shouldn't the PLV between $x(t)$ and $x(t-T)$ also be 1? If not, could someone explain why not (mathematically)
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Phase locking value (PLV) between $x(t)$ and $x(t-T)$
my time series is real eeg data over 10sec. You can run the experiment on any general $x(t)$ that has a continuous FT.
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What, if anything, sets humans apart from other species?
For millions of years, mankind lived just like the animals. Then something happened that unleashed the power of our imagination. We learned to talk.