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Nov 3, 2014 at 20:01 vote accept CuriousSuperhero
Nov 3, 2014 at 15:42 answer added Grasper timeline score: 2
Nov 1, 2014 at 20:44 comment added Jirka Hanika Not every child growing up in a bilingual family ever becomes a "productive" speaker of both languages involved, not even if each one of them is exclusively used by one of the parents when speaking to the child, while both parents understand a shared language, possibly the preferred one when they speak to each other. Fairly often the child develops into an active speaker of the "shared language" and receptive (passive) speaker of the other one. How, then, do you define when exactly a particular language was "learned"?
S Nov 1, 2014 at 15:15 history suggested Logical Fallacy CC BY-SA 3.0
(hopefully) clarified what the OP was asking, though the question may be too vague to answer properly. What is "faster"?
Nov 1, 2014 at 14:53 review Suggested edits
S Nov 1, 2014 at 15:15
Oct 31, 2014 at 20:26 history asked CuriousSuperhero CC BY-SA 3.0