While doing research on various existing psychotherapeutic methods and perspectives, I came to wonder whether there were any existing relationship between gender and the responsiveness to given therapies. The relationship can be arbitrary or with some theoretical weight.

Not sure if this question is clear enough...

Thank you for reading


closed as too broad by Christian Hummeluhr, Arnon Weinberg, Josh de Leeuw, AliceD, Josh Apr 20 '15 at 2:34

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    $\begingroup$ "various psychotherapeutic methods" is quite ill-defined. Could you give some specifics on this? Most importantly, what kind(s) of psychotherapy are you interested in? Alternatively, the kinds of pathologies that draw your interest most may also help. $\endgroup$ – AliceD Jan 19 '15 at 2:28
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    $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this because either the psychopathologies or treatment methods of interest need to be defined for the question to have an answer within the scope of SE. $\endgroup$ – Christian Hummeluhr Apr 19 '15 at 9:35
  • $\begingroup$ I'm voting to reopen because hiding the fact that psychology in its present shape does not serve men is not rational. $\endgroup$ – user3832 Apr 20 '15 at 3:25

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