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There is a lot of research suggesting that different ethnic groups either within US or worldwide if all plotted together would have distributions of IQ with different averages. The reasons for that could be socioeconomic; I am not interested in the reasons right now.

What I am interested in is do they have the same standard deviation? Naively I would expect that the distribution gets scaled proportionally so the standard deviations should be different.

I am aware of one paper suggesting variation in SD but I would appreciate more references.

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  • $\begingroup$ I notice that no-one has dared to touch this potentially controversial topic. A reading of Eysenk's The Inequality of Man - free on the internet archive, and still fairly relevant to the topic might push you along the path you need. NB. Some of the author's work has been withdrawn due to academic misconduct after an investigation by King's Collage London 2019, due diligence on the validity of the conclusions is up to you. $\endgroup$
    – Jiminy Cricket.
    Nov 1, 2021 at 12:27

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