"Introversion" as I've encountered it is at one end of a polarity in both Jungian preferences and the Big 5. It is at least in theory not seen as intrinsically pathological by psychologists, though it may be roughly treated in some cultures today.

The "autism spectrum" is (now) the DSM-V successor to a DSM-IV which had distinct autism, Asperger's, and ADD/ADHD, and perhaps other conditions which have been folded into a broader autism spectrum. It is seen as a (pathological) behavioral health issue.

Is this disconnect simply because Jungian / Big 5 is not a tool to diagnose pathologies (apart from Jung's remark about pure introverts and pure extraverts being an extreme and pathological exception), and the DSM-V is a tool in an enterprise to diagnose and treat behavioral health issues, or is there another difference between one being treated by psychology as legitimate and the other being treated as pathological?

If it is possible to be an introvert without being on the autism spectrum, or be on the autism spectrum without being an introvert, what would examples of those cases look like, together with a non-autistic extravert and an autistic introvert?


  • $\begingroup$ "If it is possible to be an introvert without being on the autism spectrum, ... what would examples of those cases look like ..." Simply an introverted person. Being introverted is one attribute associated with ASD, but in and of itself I don't believe it could ever lead to a diagnosis of ASD. Will await the answer of more knowledgeable people here though. 😉 $\endgroup$
    – Steven Jeuris
    Oct 28 '19 at 9:16
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. And I realized in retrospect that I probably spoke inaccurately in terms of neuroticism being related to behavioral health. (I look forward to more knowledgeable answers too). $\endgroup$ Oct 28 '19 at 13:58
  • $\begingroup$ Related: psychology.stackexchange.com/questions/26457/… $\endgroup$ Jan 8 at 19:30

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