Neural adaptation is "...a change over time in the responsiveness of the sensory system to a constant stimulus". The example given is placing your hand on the surface of a table. Eventually, you no longer sense your hand touching the table because your neurons have adapted to the stimulus.
Drug tolerance is "...reduced reaction to a drug following its repeated use". This means that increased dosages are required to produce the same effect. I've been careful to state that the drugs I'm considering are psychoactive drugs, so their mechanism of action of is mostly within the brain.
The missing link between these two concepts seems to be acclimatization. Acclimatization is "the process by which the nervous system fails to respond to a stimulus, as a result of the repeated stimulation of a transmission across a synapse". The article on neural adaptation states that acclimatization is the process by which neural adaptation is usually believed to occur.
So is drug tolerance a form of neural adaption with the stimulus being whatever substance a subject repeatedly consumes? It's worth noticing that adaptation does not specify a direction of change in responsiveness. Therefore, assuming drug tolerance is a form of neural adaption, and if the effects of exposure to drugs become amplified rather than diminished, it too would be a form of neural adaptation.
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