Given there are two psychological concepts A and B that are considered to be independent/orthogonal.
Would the following empirical results proof the opposite? If not why?
In the first experiment A is the independent variable with two conditions: high and low A. B is identically induced in both conditions and measured as the dependent variable. In the high A condition high B is measured. In the low A condition low B is measured. The second experiment is analog to the first one, except with A and B reversed: in the high B condition high A is measured, and in the low B condition low A is measured.
References to papers that use similiar arguments would be very helpful.