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I couldn't find any information on whether dyslexia is equally prevalent in normally sighted people and among visually impaired people who learned reading and writing through braille?

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    $\begingroup$ What do you mean when you say "equally apparent"? For me, a question on how apparent (visible, etc) dyslexia is in the VI is quite different from a question on prevalence... The first would be a discussion of diagnoses, while the second may be a statistic. $\endgroup$
    – mflo-ByeSE
    Jun 4 '17 at 15:18
  • $\begingroup$ I edited the question and replaced apparent with prevalent, this should make the question more clear. @mfloren $\endgroup$
    – HeLi8
    Jun 5 '17 at 12:53
  • $\begingroup$ Try to add some references to give more credibility to your answer $\endgroup$
    – Fil
    Jun 18 '17 at 18:57
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The term Dyslexia is used to refer to a pattern of learning difficulties characterized by problems with accurate or fluent word recognition, poor decoding, and poor spelling abilities.

DSM-5 posit: "The learning difficulties are not better accounted for by intellectual disabilities, uncorrected visual or auditory acuity, other mental or neurological disorders, psychosocial adversity, lack of proficiency in the language of academic instruction, or inadequate educational instruction"

This is one of the diagnostic criteria for a "Specific learning disorder". Accordingly, the answer to your question is no, because in that case we should talk about another deficit.

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