I was reading about mental illnesses and then thought one day that the uninformed regard mental illnesses the same way leprosy was regarded.
I looked up about leprosy and some papers and articles about how mental illness is a modern-day leprosy, but I can't seem to find as to what exactly is the relation, if they are even thinking the same thing I am.
So far I know, it is observed that the uninformed are not giving them the treatment they need. Specifically, why are the uninformed not giving them the treatment they need?
Is it accurate and precise to say that mental illness is regarded as modern-day leprosy since:
In modern times, uninformed people believe people who have mental illnesses have mental illnesses because they committed gravely immoral actions (see how I avoid the non-secular word "sin") ?
Take for example a drug or gambling addict. Drug and gambling addictions are mental illnesses, but an uninformed person would look at a drug or gambling addict and say that the reason that they have these sicknesses is that they started taking drugs or gambling, the immoral action.
However maybe an informed person would say that the reverse is the case: the immoral actions of starting to take drugs or gamble is caused in part by the illness that the person had or the biological, psychological or environmental predispositions that the person had.
Other examples would include procrastination, overeating or hyperactivity.
Bottom line, is it accurate and precise to say that the term "modern leprosy" is in reference to thinking:
You're crazy because you did evil things
You did evil things because you're mentally ill ?
This question may not be very clear so please recommend how I can improve this question.